Name: 
 

Biology 12-2 Final Exam


Multiple Choice (1 pt. each)
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
a.
only during interphase
c.
only during the M phase
b.
only when they are being replicated
d.
only during the G1 phase
 

 2. 
During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a.
prophase
c.
metaphase
b.
telophase
d.
anaphase
 

 3. 
Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a.
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b.
interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c.
interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d.
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
 

 4. 
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a.
It helps separate the chromosomes.
c.
It duplicates the DNA.
b.
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d.
It divides the cell in half.
 

 5. 
Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish?
a.
The cells lack cyclin.
b.
The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
c.
Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
d.
Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective p53.
 

 6. 
Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
a.
size.
c.
growth rate.
b.
spindle fibers.
d.
surface area.
 

 7. 
Which of the following happens when a cell divides?
a.
The cell’s volume increases.
b.
It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
c.
The cell has DNA overload.
d.
Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.
 

 8. 
Which of the following is a phase in the cell cycle?
a.
G1 phase
c.
M phase
b.
G2 phase
d.
all of the above
 
 
nar002-1.jpg

Figure 10–2
 

 9. 
Cell division is represented in Figure 10-2 by the letter?
a.
A.
c.
C.
b.
B.
d.
D
 

 10. 
The cell cycle is the
a.
series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b.
period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c.
time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d.
time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
 

 11. 
Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?
a.
cytokinesis
c.
anaphase
b.
interphase
d.
S phase
 

 12. 
What is a tumor?
a.
an accumulation of cyclins
b.
a mass of cancer cells
c.
the rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a wound
d.
a defective p53 gene
 

 13. 
Mendel concluded that traits are
a.
not inherited by offspring.
b.
inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c.
determined by dominant factors only.
d.
determined by recessive factors only.
 

 14. 
In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F2 generation because
a.
some of the F2 plants produced gametes that carried the allele for shortness.
b.
the allele for shortness is dominant.
c.
the allele for shortness and the allele for tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced gametes.
d.
they inherited an allele for shortness from one parent and an allele for tallness from the other parent.
 

 15. 
A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT
a.
all possible results of a genetic cross.
b.
the genotypes of the offspring.
c.
the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
d.
the actual, or real, results of a genetic cross.
 

 16. 
How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?
a.
2
c.
8
b.
4
d.
16
 

 17. 
A cross of a white hen with a black rooster produces erminette-colored (black & white) offspring. This type of inheritance is known as
a.
incomplete dominance.
c.
codominance.
b.
polygenic inheritance.
d.
multiple alleles.
 

 18. 
Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study
a.
flowering.
c.
the inheritance of traits.
b.
gamete formation.
d.
cross-pollination.
 

 19. 
What are Mendel’s factors called today?
a.
alleles
c.
genes
b.
traits
d.
characters
 

 20. 
Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a.
hybrid.
c.
heterozygous.
b.
homozygous.
d.
dominant.
 

 21. 
Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called
a.
multiple alleles.
c.
codominant alleles.
b.
incomplete dominance.
d.
multiple genes.
 

 22. 
Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a.
plants only.
c.
pea plants only.
b.
animals only.
d.
all organisms.
 

 23. 
Gametes are produced by the process of
a.
mitosis.
c.
crossing-over.
b.
meiosis.
d.
replication.
 

 24. 
Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a.
diploid cells.
c.
2N daughter cells.
b.
haploid cells.
d.
body cells.
 

 25. 
Traits that are produced by the interaction of several genes are said to be
a.
polygenic.
c.
haploid.
b.
codominant.
d.
diploid.
 

 26. 
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
each with two new strands.
b.
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
each with two original strands.
 

 27. 
Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
a.
transfer RNA only
b.
messenger RNA only
c.
ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
d.
messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
 

 28. 
During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed
a.
that is complementary to both strands of DNA.
b.
that is complementary to neither strand of DNA.
c.
that is double-stranded.
d.
inside the nucleus.
 

 29. 
How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
a.
3
c.
9
b.
6
d.
12
 

 30. 
Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a.
rRNA
c.
mRNA
b.
tRNA
d.
RNA polymerase
 

 31. 
Figure 12-5 shows the structure of a(an)

mc031-1.jpg

Figure 12–5
a.
DNA molecule.
c.
RNA molecule.
b.
amino acid.
d.
protein.
 

 32. 
In eukaryotes, DNA
a.
is located in the nucleus.
c.
is located in the ribosomes.
b.
floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d.
is circular.
 

 33. 
RNA contains the sugar
a.
ribose.
c.
glucose.
b.
deoxyribose.
d.
lactose.
 

 34. 
Which RNA molecule carries amino acids?
a.
messenger RNA
c.
ribosomal RNA
b.
transfer RNA
d.
RNA polymerase
 

 35. 
Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
purines.
c.
proteins.
b.
structures
d.
pyrimidines.
 

 36. 
Selective breeding produces
a.
more offspring.
c.
desired traits in offspring.
b.
fewer offspring.
d.
transgenic organisms.
 

 37. 
Which of the following are purines?
a.
adenine & thymine
c.
adenine & guanine
b.
cytosine & guanine
d.
cytosine & thymine
 

 38. 
What does Figure 13-1 show?

mc038-1.jpg

Figure 13–1
a.
gel electrophoresis
b.
DNA sequencing
c.
a restriction enzyme cutting different sequences of DNA
d.
polymerase chain reaction
 

 39. 
Genetic engineering involves
a.
reading a DNA sequence.
b.
editing a DNA sequence.
c.
reinserting DNA into living organisms.
d.
all of the above
 

 40. 
If the DNA of a particular species of fly is found to contain 20% guanine, what percentage of thymine would you expect to find in this fly’s DNA?
a.
20%
b.
80%
c.
60%
d.
30%
 

 41. 
A section of DNA contains the following bases in this order: GATCCT. Which of the following mRNA sequences complements this section of DNA?
a.
CUAGGA
c.
CTAGGC
b.
 TCGAAG
d.
AGCUUC
 

 42. 
On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
a.
completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b.
species exactly like those found in South America.
c.
somewhat similar species with traits that suited their particular environment.
d.
species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
 

 43. 
Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of
a.
continual increases in population size.
b.
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c.
an unchanging local environment.
d.
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
 

 44. 
When coyotes prey on rabbits,, some rabbits are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a.
acquired characteristics
c.
survival of the fittest
b.
reproductive isolation
d.
descent with modification
 

 45. 
If a white-flowered parent was crossed with a red-flowered parent in a species that displays incomplete dominance what type(s) of flowering offspring would be expected in this species
a.
all red offspring
c.
all white offspring
b.
all pink offspring
d.
no offspring
 

 46. 
Two parents are known to be right-handed.  Assuming that right-handed (R) is dominant to
left-handed (r), what could be the genotypes of the parents if their son is left-handed?
a.
rr x RR
c.
Rr x Rr
b.
Rr x RR
d.
RR x RR
 

 47. 
Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?
a.
descent with modification
b.
natural selection
c.
transmission of acquired characteristics
d.
competition among the members of a population
 

 48. 
When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a.
natural selection.
c.
artificial variation.
b.
artificial selection.
d.
survival of the fittest.
 

 49. 
Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment
a.
diversity.
c.
adaptation.
b.
fitness.
d.
evolution.
 

 50. 
The hypothesis that species change over time by natural selection was proposed by
a.
Hutton.
c.
Malthus.
b.
Lamarck.
d.
Darwin.
 

 51. 
Which of the following statements describes what all members of a population share?
a.
They are temporally isolated from one another.
b.
They are geographically isolated from one another.
c.
They are members of the same species.
d.
They have identical genes.
 

 52. 
In many kinds of organisms, most heritable differences are due to
a.
mutations during gamete formation.
b.
chemicals in the environment.
c.
gene shuffling during gamete formation.
d.
the effects of radiation.
 

 53. 
Which of the following would effect the genetic equilibrium of a population?
a.
nonrandom mating.
b.
movement into and out of the population.
c.
mutations.
d.
all of the above
 

 54. 
The division of the nervous system that regulates activities that are under conscious control is the
a.
somatic nervous system.
c.
autonomic nervous system.
b.
sensory nervous system.
d.
sympathetic nervous system.
 

 55. 
Which general category of sensory receptors detects variations in temperature?
a.
thermoreceptors
c.
photoreceptors
b.
mechanoreceptors
d.
pain receptors
 

Completion: Complete each statement.(1 pt. each)
 

 1. 
The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called ____________________.
 

 

 2. 
Together, the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase are called ____________________.
 

 

 3. 
Look at Figure 10-4. The process shown occurs directly following mitosis. This process is called ____________________.

co003-1.jpg

Figure 10–4
 

 

 4. 
A pea plant that has two different alleles for the same trait is said to be ____________________.
 

 

 5. 
An organism’s gametes have ____________________ the number of chromosomes found in the organism’s body cells.
 

 

 6. 
The principle of independent assortment states that ____________________ for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes.
 

 

 7. 
The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA determines the order of ____________________ in proteins.
 

 

 8. 
According to the principle of base pairing, hydrogen bonds can form only between ________ and thymine, and between guanine and ____________.
 

 

 9. 
In Figure 12-7 below, A, B, and C are three types of ____________________.

co009-1.jpg

Figure 12–7
 

 

 10. 
In most animals, axons and dendrites are clustered into bundles of fibers called ____________________.
 

 

Short Answer:  (2 pts each)
 

 1. 
Why are chromosomes not visible in most cells except during cell division?
 

 2. 
How many recessive alleles for a trait must an organism inherit in order to show that trait?
 

 3. 
Define genetics.
 

 4. 
How many sets of chromosomes are in a diploid cell?
 

 5. 
Define homologous chromosomes.
 

 6. 
In Figure 12-2, which molecule is tRNA, and what is its function?

sa006-1.jpg

Figure 12–2
 

 7. 
According to Figure 12-3, what two codons specify the amino acid arginine?

sa007-1.jpg

Figure 12–3
 

 8. 
Were Darwin’s hypotheses about natural selection and evolution similar to the ideas of most other scientists of his time? Explain.
 

Scientific Reasoning Questions--2 pts each
 
 
nar001-1.jpg

Figure 10-1
 

 1. 
Predicting Look at the cancer cells shown in Figure 10-1. What can happen if these cells are left untreated?
 
 

nar003-1.jpg

Figure 10–5
 

 2. 
Applying Concepts List the correct order for the diagrams in Figure 10-5 above.
 
 
Heterozygous male guinea pigs with black, rough hair (BbRr) are crossed with heterozygous female guinea pigs with black, rough hair (BbRr). The incomplete Punnett square in Figure 11-4 shows the expected results from the cross.

 
BR
Br
bR
br
 
BR
BBRR
BBRr
BbRR
BbRr
Hair Color:  B = Black b = White
Br
BBRr
BBrr
BbRr
Bbrr
Hair Texture: R = Rough r = Smooth
bR
BbRR
BbRr
?
bbRr
br
BbRr
Bbrr
bbRr
bbrr
 

Figure 11–4
 

 3. 
Using Tables and Graphs Identify the genotype of the offspring that would be represented in the square labeled with a question mark in Figure 11-4 above.
 

 4. 
What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in the Figure 11-4 above?
 

 5. 
What would the phenotypic ratio of the offpring have been if the parents above were BBRR x bbrr?
 
 
nar005-1.jpgnar005-2.jpgnar005-3.jpgnar005-4.jpg

Figure 12–4
 

 6. 
Interpreting Graphics Identify the genotypes for individuals II-4, II-5, III-11, & III-12
 

 7. 
Interpreting Graphics Explain why more females than males inherit CH in generation III
 
 
This diagram a synapse between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another.
nar006-1.jpg

Figure 35–3
 

 8. 
Applying Concepts In Figure 35-3, what would cause the release of neurotransmitters from the vesicles?
 

Essay:  Choose 4 of following on which to write a brief essay.  Use the looseleaf provided.  (5 pts each).
 

 1. 
Describe what happens during the four phases of mitosis.
 

 2. 
Describe how cancer cells are different from other cells. Based on these differences, explain why cancer has been such a difficult condition to cure.
 

 3. 
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
 

 4. 
Explain the advantage and disadvantage of inbreeding. Give an example of each.
 

 5. 
Choose one of the following genetic birth defects and write a short explanatory paragraph about it:  Turner’s Syndrome, Patau’s Syndrome, or Down’s Syndrome.
 

 6. 
Suppose that selective breeding has produced a population of very similar pheasants. Would that population survive if it were released into the world? Explain.
 

 7. 
Compare resting potential and action potential in a neuron.
 



 
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