Name: 
 

Biology 122 Midterm - Ch 10, 11, 12(sect 1-3), 15 & 16



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

As a cell grows, it
a.
places more demands on its DNA.
b.
uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
c.
has more trouble moving enough materials across its cell membrane.
d.
all of the above
 

 2. 

All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT
a.
DNA overload.
c.
obtaining enough food.
b.
excess oxygen.
d.
expelling wastes.
 

 3. 

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
a.
only during interphase
c.
only during cell division
b.
only when they are being replicated
d.
only during the G1 phase
 

 4. 

Which pair is correct?
a.
G1 phase, DNA replication
c.
S phase, cell division
b.
G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
d.
M phase, cell growth
 

 5. 

When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a.
G1 phase
c.
S phase
b.
G2 phase
d.
M phase
 

 6. 

Which event occurs during interphase?
a.
The cell grows.
c.
Spindle fibers begin to form.
b.
Centrioles appear.
d.
Centromeres divide.
 
 
nar001-1.jpg

Figure 10–1
 

 7. 

Cell division is represented in Figure 10–1 by the letter
a.
A.
c.
C.
b.
B.
d.
D.
 

 8. 

Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?
a.
cytokinesis
c.
prophase
b.
interphase
d.
S phase
 

 9. 

The first phase of mitosis is called
a.
prophase.
c.
metaphase.
b.
anaphase.
d.
interphase.
 

 10. 

What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a.
It helps separate the chromosomes.
b.
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
c.
It duplicates the DNA.
d.
It makes the chromosomes visible. 
 

 11. 

The two main stages of cell division are called
a.
mitosis and interphase.
c.
the M phase and the S phase.
b.
synthesis and cytokinesis.
d.
mitosis and cytokinesis.
 

 12. 

Right after a bone breaks, cells at the edge of the injury
a.
stop dividing.
b.
begin to divide rapidly.
c.
form a thin layer over the edge of the injury.
d.
develop a defect in a gene called p53. 
 

 13. 

Which of the following is a factor that can stop normal cells from growing?
a.
contact with other cells
b.
growth factors
c.
a cut in the skin
d.
cyclin that has been taken from a cell in mitosis
 

 14. 

Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that
a.
regulate the cell cycle.
c.
cause cancer.
b.
produce p53.
d.
work to heal wounds.
 

 15. 

Which of the following regulate(s) the cell cycle?
a.
growth factors
c.
p53
b.
cyclins
d.
all of the above
 

 16. 

What is a tumor?
a.
an accumulation of cyclins
b.
a mass of cancer cells
c.
the rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a wound
d.
a defective p53 gene
 

 17. 

Offspring that result from crosses between parents with different traits
a.
are true-breeding.
c.
make up the parental generation.
b.
make up the F2 generation.
d.
are called hybrids.
 

 18. 

Gregor Mendel removed the male parts from the flowers of some plants in order to
a.
prevent hybrids from forming.
b.
prevent cross-pollination.
c.
stimulate self-pollination.
d.
make controlled crosses between plants.
 

 19. 

Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
a.
not inherited by offspring.
b.
inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c.
determined by dominant factors only.
d.
determined by recessive factors only.
 

 20. 

The principle of dominance states that
a.
all alleles are dominant.
b.
all alleles are recessive.
c.
some alleles are dominant and others are recessive.
d.
alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
 

 21. 

When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding tall plants with true-breeding short plants, all the offspring were tall because
a.
the allele for tall plants is recessive.
b.
the allele for short plants is dominant.
c.
the allele for tall plants is dominant.
d.
they were true-breeding like their parents.
 

 22. 

If a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas, it will produce
a.
green peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
b.
both green peas and yellow peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
c.
green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas.
d.
yellow peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for green peas.
 
 
  
Tt
  
T
t





TT

T

TT

Tt

T

TT

Tt

T
=
Tall
t
=
Short

Figure 11–1
 

 23. 

In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11–1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?
a.
About half are expected to be short.
c.
About half are expected to be tall.
b.
All are expected to be short.
d.
All are expected to be tall.
 

 24. 

How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?
a.
2
c.
8
b.
4
d.
16
 

 25. 

A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This type of inheritance is known as
a.
incomplete dominance.
c.
codominance.
b.
polygenic inheritance.
d.
multiple alleles.
 

 26. 

The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the
a.
less likely they are to be inherited together.
b.
more likely they are to be linked.
c.
less likely they are to assort independently.
d.
less likely they are to be separated by a crossover during meiosis.
 

 27. 

During mitosis, the
a.
DNA molecules unwind.
b.
histones and DNA molecules separate.
c.
DNA polymerase makes copies of DNA strands. 
d.
nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
 

 28. 

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a.
each with two new strands.
b.
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c.
each with one new strand and one original strand.
d.
each with two original strands.
 

 29. 

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
a.
TCGAAC.
c.
AGCTTG.
b.
GATCCA.
d.
GAUCCA.
 

 30. 

How many main types of RNA are there?
a.
1
c.
hundreds
b.
3
d.
thousands
 

 31. 

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the
a.
codon on the mRNA only.
b.
anticodon on the mRNA only.
c.
anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
d.
codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.
 

 32. 

Which of the following statements is false?
a.
Some genes code for enzymes.
b.
The instructions for making some proteins are not specified by genes.
c.
An organism’s inherited traits depend on proteins.
d.
An organism’s genes determine its inherited traits.
 

 33. 

James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work suggests that
a.
Earth is many millions of years old.
b.
Earth is several thousand years old.
c.
all fossils were formed in the last 1000 years.
d.
all rocks on Earth contain fossils.
 

 34. 

James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work was important to Darwin because these scientists
a.
explained volcanoes and earthquakes.
b.
explained all geologic events on Earth.
c.
suggested that Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred.
d.
refuted the work of Lamarck, which was based on misunderstandings.
 

 35. 

What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of James Hutton and Charles Lyell?
a.
Earth is relatively young.
b.
Earth is very old.
c.
All geological change is caused by living organisms.
d.
The processes that formed old rocks on Earth do not operate today.
 

 36. 

In an experiment, suppose that the wings of fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on
a.
inheritance of natural variations.
b.
inheritance of acquired characteristics.
c.
natural selection.
d.
survival of the fittest.
 

 37. 

The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was presented by
a.
Charles Darwin.
c.
Thomas Malthus.
b.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
d.
Charles Lyell.
 

 38. 

When Charles Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he
a.
immediately published his ideas about evolution.
b.
realized his ideas about evolution were wrong.
c.
wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them.
d.
copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace.
 

 39. 

Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches
a.
have the ability to interbreed.
b.
acquired traits through use and disuse.
c.
all eat the same type of food.
d.
descended from a common ancestor.
 

 40. 

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a.
natural selection.
c.
artificial variation.
b.
artificial selection.
d.
survival of the fittest.
 

 41. 

Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the theory of natural selection?
a.
They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring.
b.
They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population.
c.
They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment.
d.
They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.
 

 42. 

Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a.
diversity.
c.
adaptation.
b.
fitness.
d.
evolution.
 

 43. 

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have
a.
characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b.
characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c.
the greatest number of offspring.
d.
variations best suited to the environment.
 

 44. 

Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that primitive vertebrates
a.
share a common ancestor with sea stars.
b.
evolved from sea stars.
c.
evolved before sea stars.
d.
belong to the same species as sea stars.
 

 45. 

The same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce
a.
homologous structures such as wings and arms.
b.
the same kind of embryos.
c.
natural variations in a population.
d.
descent with modification.
 

 46. 

Gene shuffling includes the independent movement of chromosomes during meoisis as well as
a.
mutations from radiation.
c.
crossing-over.
b.
changes in the frequencies of alleles.
d.
mutations from chemicals.
 

 47. 

In a particular population, sexual reproduction can produce
a.
mutations.
c.
new allele frequencies.
b.
many different phenotypes.
d.
meiosis.
 

 48. 

The gene shuffling that occurs as part of sexual reproduction
a.
changes the gene pool’s allele frequencies.
b.
does not change the gene pool’s allele frequencies.
c.
keeps the phenotypes consistent.
d.
is caused by radiation or chemicals.
 

 49. 

Which of the following is NOT a way in which natural selection affects the distribution of phenotypes?
a.
directional selection
c.
disruptive selection
b.
stabilizing selection
d.
chance events
 

 50. 

The situation in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant is called
a.
evolution.
c.
genetic equilibrium.
b.
genetic drift.
d.
natural selection.
 

 51. 

One of the conditions required to maintain genetic equilibrium is
a.
natural selection.
b.
mutations.
c.
nonrandom mating.
d.
no movement into or out of the population.
 

 52. 

A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is
a.
reproduction at different times.
c.
different mating behaviors.
b.
geographic barriers.
d.
reproductive isolation.
 

 53. 

The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene pools because it
a.
prevents interbreeding between the populations.
b.
prevents interbreeding within each population.
c.
causes temporal isolation of the two populations.
d.
increases differences in courtship behavior.
 

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
 
 
nar002-1.jpg

Figure 10–2
 

 54. 

The structure shown in Figure 10–2 is a replicated chromosome. _________________________

 

 55. 

Proteins called cyclins help regulate the cell cycle. _________________________

 

 56. 

A trait is a specific characteristic that varies from one individual to another. _________________________

 

 57. 

Gregor Mendel concluded that the tall plants in the P generation passed the factor for tallness to the F1 generation. _________________________

 

 58. 

During the formation of gametes in a hybrid tall plant, the tall allele and the short allele stay together. _________________________

 

 59. 

Mitosis results in two cells, whereas meiosis results in one cell. _________________________

 

 60. 

Genes in the same linkage group are usually inherited separately. _________________________

 

 61. 

The three types of RNA are messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA. _________________________

 

 62. 

A codon consists of four nucleotides. _________________________

 

 63. 

DNA codes for the DNA polymerase enzyme. _________________________

 

 64. 

According to Lamarck, the sea floor can be pushed up to form mountains by forces within Earth. _________________________

 

 65. 

In Charles Darwin’s time, many people thought that Earth and its living things were formed about a few thousand years ago. _________________________

 

 66. 

Evidence that the surface of a mountain was once under the sea includes the presence of marine fossils on the mountain. _________________________

 

 67. 

In the type of reproductive isolation called behavioral isolation, two populations are separated by barriers such as rivers or mountains. _________________________

 

Completion
Complete each statement.
 

 68. 

A cell that has 5 chromosomes in the G1 phase will have ____________________ chromatids in the G2 phase.
 

 
 
nar003-1.jpg

Figure 10–3
 

 69. 

The process shown in Figure 10–3 occurs only in ____________________ cells that have just divided.
 

 

 70. 

During metaphase, the centromere on each chromosome is connected to a structure called a _________________________.
 

 

 71. 

The plants that Gregor Mendel crossed to produce the F1 generation made up the ____________________ generation.
 

 
 
  
Tt
  
T
t





TT

T

TT

Tt

T

TT

Tt

T
=
Tall
t
=
Short

Figure 11–1
 

 72. 

In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11–1, the genotypes of the offspring are ____________________.
 

 

 73. 

When two heterozygous tall pea plants are crossed, the expected genotype ratio of the offspring is _________________________.
 

 
 
nar006-1.jpg

Figure 12–1
 

 74. 

The structure labeled X in Figure 12–1 is a(an) ____________________.
 

 

 75. 

The Watson and Crick model of DNA is a(an) _________________________, in which two strands are wound around each other.
 

 

 76. 

During transcription, the _________________________ between base pairs are broken.
 

 

 77. 

Crossing-over can occur during the meiotic divisions that produce cells called ____________________.
 

 

 78. 

Most inherited differences in the appearances of two brothers are due to the _________________________ that occurred during the production of gametes in their parents.
 

 

 79. 

The number of possible phenotypes for a given trait depends on how many ____________________ control the trait.
 

 

 80. 

A polygenic trait can have many possible genotypes and ____________________.
 

 

 81. 

In the Galápagos finches that Rosemary and Peter Grant studied, a pattern of natural selection called ____________________ selection favored individuals with larger, heavier beaks during a drought.
 

 

Short Answer
 

 82. 

Identify a factor that can stop cells from dividing.
 
 
RrYy
  

RY

Ry

rY

ry
 
 

RY

RRYY

RRYy

RrYY

RrYy
Seed Shape
R =
Round
r =
Wrinkled


RrYy

Ry

RRYy

RRyy

RrYy

Rryy


Seed Color
Y =
Yellow
y = Green

rY

RrYY

RrYy

rrYY

rrYy
 

ry

RrYy

Rryy

rrYy

rryy
 

Figure 11–2
 

 83. 

What is the phenotype ratio of the offspring in the Punnett square shown in Figure 11–2?
 

 84. 

Which genes do not code for proteins?
 

 85. 

What did observations of the tortoises of the Galápagos lead Charles Darwin to hypothesize about these animals’ ancestry?
 

 86. 

Why might genetic drift occur if a small number of individuals colonize a new habitat?
 

Essay
 

 87. 

Describe how the skin cells near a cut behave. What role does contact with other cells have in the behavior of cells near a cut?
 

 88. 

Explain the difference between incomplete dominance and codominance.
 

 89. 

Why is it possible that Alfred Wallace independently developed the same ideas about evolution that Darwin did?
 

 90. 

How are directional selection and disruptive selection similar? How are they different?
 

 91. 

Assume that a geographic barrier that results in two very different ecosystems splits a single population. What would likely happen to the two separate populations? Would this process occur more quickly, less quickly, or at the same rate as it would if the two populations lived in similar ecosystems?
 



 
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