Formative Test from Mid-Term to End-of-Year (Ch 13, 15, 16, 35, 39)

Name:

Multiple Choice (Value 75)
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?

a.	horse breeds	c.	dog breeds
b.	cat breeds	d.	all of the above

Scientists produced oil-eating bacteria by

a.	making bacteria polyploid.	c.	inducing mutations in bacteria.
b.	inbreeding bacteria.	d.	hybridizing bacteria.

Which of the following includes all the others?

a.	hybridization	c.	selective breeding
b.	inbreeding	d.	induced mutations

Figure 13–1

What does Figure 13–1 show?

a.	gel electrophoresis
b.	DNA sequencing
c.	a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment
d.	polymerase chain reaction

In Figure 13–1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut?

a.	adenine and thymine	c.	thymine and cytosine
b.	cytosine and guanine	d.	adenine and guanine

Knowing the sequence of an organism’s DNA allows researchers to

a.	reproduce the organism.	c.	study specific genes.
b.	mutate the DNA.	d.	cut the DNA.

If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the samples contained

a.	the same amount of DNA.	c.	the same DNA molecules.
b.	fragments of the same size.	d.	all of the above

Scientists can transform plant cells by

a.	using the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
b.	removing the plant cell walls and then mixing the cells with DNA.
c.	injecting DNA into the plant cells.
d.	all of the above

What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms?

a.	hybridization	c.	inducing of mutations
b.	inbreeding	d.	genetic engineering

10.

What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?

a.	increasing the food supply	c.	producing clones
b.	using more pesticides	d.	studying human genes

11.

The Scottish scientist Ian Wilmut cloned a

a.	bacterium.	c.	plant.
b.	sheep.	d.	cow.

12.

On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed

a.	completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b.	species exactly like those found in South America.
c.	somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments.
d.	species completely unrelated to those found in South America.

13.

Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after

a.	experimentation with animals.
b.	observations of many species and their geographical location.
c.	reading the writings of Wallace.
d.	agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.

14.

James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work was important to Darwin because these scientists

a.	explained volcanoes and earthquakes.
b.	explained all geologic events on Earth.
c.	suggested that Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred.
d.	refuted the work of Lamarck, which was based on misunderstandings.

15.

Which is a major concept included in Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

a.	Change is the result of survival of the fittest.
b.	Body structure can change according to the actions of the organism.
c.	Population size decreases the rate of evolution.
d.	Artificial selection is the basis for evolution.

16.

In an experiment, suppose that the wings of fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on

a.	inheritance of natural variations.
b.	inheritance of acquired characteristics.
c.	natural selection.
d.	survival of the fittest.

17.

The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that

a.	in the human population, people die faster than babies are born.
b.	there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population.
c.	in the 1700s, England needed more housing.
d.	the majority of a species’ offspring die.

18.

In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled

a.	Principles of Geology.
b.	Essay on the Principle of Population.
c.	Evolution in Malaysia.
d.	On the Origin of Species.

19.

Why might Darwin have hesitated to publish his concept of evolution by natural selection?

a.	He realized it was not supported by his data.
b.	He felt it was too similar to Lamarck’s to be considered original.
c.	He was disturbed by his findings, which challenged fundamental scientific beliefs.
d.	He realized that his idea was contradicted by the work of Hutton and Lyell.

20.

Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches

a.	have the ability to interbreed.
b.	acquired traits through use and disuse.
c.	all eat the same type of food.
d.	descended from a common ancestor.

21.

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the

a.	possession of adaptations developed through use.
b.	possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness.
c.	lack of competition within the species.
d.	choices made by plant and animal breeders.

22.

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is

a.	natural selection.	c.	artificial variation.
b.	artificial selection.	d.	survival of the fittest.

23.

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a.	characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse.
b.	characteristics that plant and animal breeders value.
c.	the greatest number of offspring.
d.	variations best suited to the environment.

24.

An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be

a.	physical or behavioral.
b.	physical or geographical.
c.	acquired during the organism’s lifetime.
d.	the result of artificial selection.

25.

The same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce

a.	homologous structures such as wings and arms.
b.	the same kind of embryos.
c.	natural variations in a population.
d.	descent with modification.

26.

Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?

a.	descent with modification
b.	natural selection
c.	transmission of acquired characteristics
d.	competition among the members of a population

27.

Which of the following statements describe what all members of a population share?

a.	They are temporally isolated from each other.
b.	They are geographically isolated from each other.
c.	They are members of the same species.
d.	They have identical genes.

28.

Interbreeding among members of a population results in

a.	different types of alleles in the gene pool.
b.	changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool.
c.	no changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool.
d.	an absence of genetic variation in the population.

29.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which natural selection affects the distribution of phenotypes?

a.	directional selection	c.	disruptive selection
b.	stabilizing selection	d.	chance events

30.

When individuals at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is

a.	directional selection.	c.	disruptive selection.
b.	stabilizing selection.	d.	genetic drift.

31.

When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is

a.	not predictable.	c.	directional selection.
b.	disruptive selection.	d.	stabilizing selection.

32.

If a mutation introduces a new skin color in a lizard population, which factor might determine whether the frequency of the new allele will increase?

a.	how many other alleles are present
b.	whether the mutation makes some lizards more fit for their environment than other lizards
c.	how many phenotypes the population has
d.	whether the mutation was caused by nature or by human intervention

33.

In genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of

a.	mutations.	c.	natural selection.
b.	chance.	d.	genetic equilibrium.

34.

The genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed by each of the following EXCEPT

a.	nonrandom mating.
b.	movement into and out of the population.
c.	a large population size.
d.	mutations.

35.

According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, genetic equilibrium would be more likely in a population of mice if

a.	the population size rapidly decreases.
b.	mutation rates within the population rise.
c.	no natural selection takes place.
d.	there is frequent movement into and out of the population.

36.

The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called

a.	temporal isolation.	c.	behavioral isolation.
b.	geographic isolation.	d.	genetic equilibrium.

37.

A factor that is necessary for the formation of a new species is

a.	reproduction at different times.	c.	different mating behaviors.
b.	geographic barriers.	d.	reproductive isolation.

38.

The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene pools because it

a.	prevents interbreeding between the populations.
b.	prevents interbreeding within each population.
c.	causes temporal isolation of the two populations.
d.	increases differences in courtship behavior.

39.

Although they often live in the same habitat, the American toad breeds earlier in the spring than the Fowler’s toad does. What can be inferred from this information?

a.	The two species do not interbreed because of geographic isolation.
b.	The two species do not interbreed because of temporal isolation.
c.	The two species interbreed throughout the spring season.
d.	The American toad will cause the extinction of the Fowler’s toad.

40.

What did Peter and Rosemary Grant learn about mate choice from the Galápagos finches?

a.	Phenotype plays no role in mate choice.
b.	Finches prefer mates with beaks similar in size to their own.
c.	Finches prefer mates with smaller beaks than their own.
d.	Finches prefer mates with larger beaks than their own.

41.

In Rosemary and Peter Grant’s study of the Galápagos finches, what process was encouraged by ecological competition during the dry season?

a.	stabilizing selection	c.	directional selection
b.	reproductive isolation	d.	genetic drift

42.

Which system regulates and controls growth, development, and metabolism?

a.	endocrine system	c.	integumentary system
b.	lymphatic system	d.	skeletal system

43.

Which type of tissue lines your internal organs?

a.	epithelial	c.	nerve
b.	connective	d.	muscle

44.

Which type of tissue enables a person’s fingers to move as he or she plays the piano?

a.	epithelial	c.	nerve
b.	connective	d.	muscle

45.

Which type of tissue provides support for the body?

a.	epithelial	c.	nerve
b.	connective	d.	muscle

46.

Which system coordinates the body’s response to changes in its internal and external environment?

a.	lymphatic system	c.	excretory system
b.	nervous system	d.	reproductive system

47.

What begins when a neuron is stimulated by another neuron or by the environment?

a.	a threshold	c.	an impulse
b.	an action potential	d.	a dendrite

48.

What is the function of neurotransmitters?

a.	to transmit nerve impulses through dendrites
b.	to stimulate the production of epinephrine
c.	to transmit nerve impulses across synapses
d.	none of the above

Figure 35–1

49.

Refer to Figure 35–1. The cell body of a neuron collects information from which structure?

a.	A	c.	C
b.	B	d.	E

50.

Which division(s) of the peripheral nervous system transmit(s) impulses from sense organs to the central nervous system?

a.	sensory division	c.	sensory and motor divisions
b.	motor division	d.	spinal cord division

51.

Which of the following general categories of sensory receptors are located everywhere in the body except the brain?

a.	thermoreceptors	c.	photoreceptors
b.	mechanoreceptors	d.	pain receptors

52.

Sensory receptors that are sensitive to chemicals are found in the

a.	skin, body core, and hypothalamus.	c.	eyes.
b.	skin, skeletal muscles, and inner ears.	d.	nose and taste buds.

Figure 35–2

53.

Which labeled structure in Figure 35–2 creates pressure waves in the cochlea?

a.	structure A	c.	structure C
b.	structure B	d.	structure D

54.

Drugs that increase heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate are called

a.	stimulants.	c.	opiates.
b.	depressants.	d.	alcohol.

55.

What system does alcohol immediately affect?

a.	digestive	c.	nervous
b.	circulatory	d.	endocrine

56.

The endocrine system is made up of

a.	hormones.	c.	gonads.
b.	glands.	d.	prostaglandins.

57.

The nervous system is to a telephone as the endocrine system is to a

a.	chemical message.	c.	radio broadcast.
b.	television set.	d.	hormone.

Figure 39–1

58.

Figure 39–1 shows the body’s

a.	hormones.	c.	endocrine glands.
b.	target cells.	d.	exocrine glands.

59.

What is the function of the structure labeled H in Figure 39–1?

a.	to produce sex hormones	c.	to produce insulin and glucagon
b.	to produce thyroxine	d.	to produce thymosin

60.

A thermostat is a good example of a(an)

a.	hormone-receptor complex.	c.	prostaglandin.
b.	feedback system.	d.	exocrine gland.

61.

One way the endocrine system helps maintain homeostasis is by having

a.	each gland secrete only one hormone.
b.	two hormones with opposite effects regulate certain things.
c.	only steroid hormones regulate important functions.
d.	the pituitary gland regulate all the other glands.

62.

Which endocrine gland secretes sex hormones?

a.	adrenal medulla	c.	hypothalamus
b.	testis	d.	pituitary

63.

Puberty usually begins between the ages of

a.	5 and 8.	c.	16 and 19.
b.	9 and 15.	d.	20 and 25.

64.

Which hormones stimulate the gonads to mature?

a.	FSH and LH	c.	androgens
b.	estrogens	d.	testosterone and progesterone

65.

Testosterone is needed for the development of

a.	eggs.	c.	the uterus.
b.	sperm.	d.	all of the above

66.

Specialized sex cells are known as

a.	gametes.	c.	gonads.
b.	hormones.	d.	organs.

67.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the female reproductive system?

a.	to produce eggs
b.	to prepare the body to carry an embryo
c.	to deliver sperm
d.	to release eggs into the Fallopian tubes

68.

Which of the following is NOT a phase in the menstrual cycle?

a.	menstruation	c.	fertilization
b.	luteal	d.	ovulation

69.

One menstrual cycle usually lasts about a

a.	day.	c.	month.
b.	week.	d.	year.

70.

The chances of fertilization are very good if sperm are present and a(an)

a.	blastocyst is already present.	c.	woman is menstruating.
b.	egg is in the Fallopian tubes.	d.	all of the above

71.

During the process of fertilization, which step happens first?

a.	The sperm’s nucleus enters the egg cell.
b.	Enzymes break down the protective layer of the egg cell membrane.
c.	A sperm attaches to a binding site on the egg cell membrane.
d.	The cell membrane of the egg cell changes.

72.

Where does fertilization usually occur?

a.	Fallopian tube	c.	uterus
b.	ovary	d.	vagina

73.

The placenta connects the

a.	fetus to the mother’s uterus.	c.	umbilical cord to the mother’s vagina.
b.	ectoderm to the endoderm.	d.	uterus to the cervix.

74.

Which of the following usually develop(s) during childhood?

a.	personality
b.	social skills
c.	long bones, to 80 percent of adult height
d.	all of the above

75.

All of the following usually occur during adolescence EXCEPT

a.	a growth spurt.
b.	secondary sex characteristics.
c.	puberty.
d.	the appearance of first permanent teeth.

Modified True/False (Value 25)
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.

76.

Animal breeders maintain cat and dog breeds by the process of hybridization. _________________________

77.

Exposing a population of plants to radiation or certain chemicals can increase the frequency of mutations that occur within the population. _________________________

78.

A polyploid plant has more than two copies of each gene. _________________________

79.

To produce a recombinant plasmid, the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut with a different restriction enzyme. _________________________

80.

Scientists use genetic markers to determine which cells have been successfully transformed. _________________________

81.

Bacterial cells that have been transformed with a plasmid that carries a genetic marker for resistance to the antibiotic tetracycline will not survive in a culture treated with tetracycline. _________________________

82.

Some transgenic animals grow faster because they have extra copies of growth hormone genes. _________________________

83.

Because all members of a population can interbreed, biologists often study their genes as a single group. _________________________

84.

Most inheritable differences are due to gene shuffling that occurs during the production of gametes. _________________________

85.

Natural selection on single-gene traits can lead to changes in allele frequencies. _________________________

86.

In small populations, an allele can become more or less common simply by chance. _________________________

87.

Genetic drift may occur when a small group of individuals colonize a new habitat. _________________________

88.

In a population of birds, if females prefer males with long tails, the population violates the condition of directional selection described by the Hardy-Weinberg principle. _________________________

89.

In the type of reproductive isolation called behavioral isolation, two populations are separated by barriers such as rivers or mountains. _________________________

90.

The first step of the speciation of the Galápagos finches likely was the arrival of founders from South America. _________________________

91.

The hypothalamus is to your body as the thermostat is to the internal environment of a house. _________________________

92.

The brain and spinal cord can withstand considerable trauma due to the meninges acting as a shock absorber. ______________________________

93.

If you accidentally hit your toe on a desk and then quickly move your leg in response, the pathway that the nerve impulse takes from your toe to your leg is called a reflex arc._________________________

94.

Chemoreceptors are associated with the sense of smell and touch. _________________________

95.

A person with a relatively small number of cones in the retinas may have trouble distinguishing colors. _________________________

96.

The cochlea and the two tiny sacs located behind it help the body maintain its equilibrium. ______________________________

97.

About 40 percent of the fatal accidents that occur on Americans highways involve the drug alcohol. _________________________

98.

Thyroxine inhibits the secretion of TSH by the anterior pituitary gland, which maintains homeostasis. _________________________

99.

The parathyroid glands secrete hormones that help the body deal with stress. ______________________________

100.

If the primary germ layers fail to form normally during gastrulation, the embryo could develop misshapen organs. _________________________

Completion (Value 25)
Complete each statement.

101.

Humans use selective breeding to pass desired _________________________ on to the next generation of organisms.

102.

____________________ is the technique of selective breeding that has led to deformities in certain dog breeds.

103.

Genetic defects caused by excessive inbreeding can be eliminated through the process of _________________________.

104.

A DNA sample will form a single band on an electrophoresis gel if all the fragments are the same ____________________.

105.

Some plasmids have genetic markers that make them resistant to ____________________.

106.

The insulin produced by __________ bacteria is identical to the insulin produced by humans because both are coded by the same DNA sequence.

107.

The geologist ____________________ proposed that past changes in Earth must be explained in terms of events and processes observable today.

108.

According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, ____________________ change over time.

109.

According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, all species on Earth are united by _________________________.

110.

When the phenotypes of polygenic traits are represented by a bell curve, the ____________________ of individuals close together on the curve is not very different.

111.

According to the _________________________ principle, allele frequencies in a population will remain constant unless one or more of five specific factors cause those frequencies to change.

112.

For new species to evolve, populations must be ____________________ isolated from each other.

113.

If two populations have been reproductively isolated and can no longer breed and produce fertile offspring, the process of _________________________ has occurred.

114.

Your skin, hair, nails, and sweat and oil glands make up your _________________________ system.

115.

Neurons are classified into three types according to the ____________________ the impulse travels.

116.

The process by which a stimulus produces a response that opposes the original stimulus is called ____________________ inhibition.

117.

The difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane of a resting neuron is its resting ____________________.

118.

The two major divisions of the human nervous system are the central and the ____________________ nervous systems.

119.

Small muscles attached to the ____________________ of your eye change its shape to help you focus on near or distant objects.

120.

Cirrhosis of the liver is a possible result of the long-term use of ____________________.

121.

The ____________________ system is made up of glands that release their products into the ____________________.

122.

If a child’s diet lacks iodine, the ____________________ gland cannot produce its hormone and the child is likely to develop a condition called ____________________.

123.

In the female body, each egg is surrounded by a ____________________, which breaks open when the egg is mature.

124.

If the temperature of the scrotum increases by 5º Celsius, ____________________ may not develop properly.

125.

The placenta is the connection between the ____________________ and the developing fetus.

Short Answer (Value 50)

126.

A mule is produced by mating a male donkey with a female horse. What can you conclude, in general, about the characteristics of a mule?

127.

Why would breeders want to increase a population’s mutation rate?

128.

What is a plasmid?

129.

Why do transgenic bacteria that have the gene for human insulin produce insulin in great abundance?

130.

Compare the genes in Dolly and the sheep from which she was cloned.

131.

Compare the sexes of an animal clone and the animal from which it was cloned. Explain your answer.

132.

In what way did the voyage of the Beagle provide Charles Darwin with an ideal opportunity for collecting and analyzing data?

133.

State a general observation that Charles Darwin made about organisms and their environments.

134.

In artificial selection, what factor substitutes for naturally occurring selection pressures?

Figure 15–1

135.

What did Charles Darwin conclude about the existence of a common ancestor for all life?

136.

Are the members of a population necessarily the same species? Explain.

137.

Explain how you could calculate the relative frequency of an allele in a gene pool.

138.

What are the two main sources of genetic variation? Which of them is more common?

139.

Would a trait that has only two distinct phenotypes more likely be a single-gene trait or a polygenic trait? How do you know?

140.

Why might a geographic barrier such as a large river cause the formation of a new species of small rodents but not a new species of birds?

141.

How does the work of Peter and Rosemary Grant in the Galápagos relate to the work of Charles Darwin?

142.

How can the nervous system help a person run without falling? Explain.

143.

At what location does a neuron transfer an impulse to another cell?

Figure 35–1

144.

Identify the structure and its labeled parts illustrated in Figure 35–1.

145.

What is a motor neuron?

146.

Name two stimuli from the environment. For each, name the main sense involved and the sense organ responsible for detecting the stimulus.

147.

How do opiates help people overcome sensations of pain?

148.

Explain why the body of an athlete who takes an artificial form of testosterone, such as a steroid, might stop producing its own testosterone.

Figure 39–1

149.

Which glands are labeled C in Figure 39–1? What is the main function of these glands?

150.

Many sperm will take the same path toward fertilizing an egg. What prevents more than one sperm from fertilizing an egg?

Essay (Value 24)

151.

Explain an advantage and a disadvantage of inbreeding.

152.

Compare and contrast the techniques used in genetic engineering and in selective breeding to produce organisms with desired traits.

153.

In the process of cloning a sheep, Ian Wilmut removed a nucleus from an egg cell of one sheep and then substituted the nucleus from a body cell of a second sheep. Why did he substitute the nucleus of a body cell rather than the nucleus of a second egg cell?

154.

Why is it possible that Alfred Wallace independently developed the same ideas about evolution that Darwin did?

155.

If the relative frequency of a single allele for a particular trait declines over time, what would happen to the relative frequencies of some or all other alleles for that trait? Explain.

156.

How are directional selection and disruptive selection similar? How are they different?

157.

If each of the Galápagos Islands had contained an identical assortment and abundance of vegetation, would the impact of natural selection have been as pronounced as it was? Explain.

158.

Identify functions of the hormones released by the pituitary gland. What controls the release of these hormones?

159.

Starting with the follicular phase, identify the hormones that are produced during the female’s menstrual cycle. Give the function of each hormone.

160.

What is puberty?